Tag - router

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How many VLAN Create on Router
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CCNA Switching Dumps
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CCNA WAN Questions
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CCNA – EIGRP Questions
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CCNA – OSPF Questions

How many VLAN Create on Router

Ans : Vlan create on Switches not router :p

All the following information is taken from the data sheets for these devices, on the Cisco website.

  • The Cisco Catalyst 3550 switches support up to 1,005 VLANs.
  • The Cisco Cataylst 3750 switches support up to 1,005 VLANs per stack.

Both support up to 4000 VLAN IDs, but only 1,005 VLANs configured on these (some VLAN IDs will come from other switches). Unless you are a service provider, you will never configure anything like these numbers.

Please also note that the 3550 is now end-of-life, you should look at the 3560 switches instead.

 

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CCNA Switching Dumps

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.

2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.

Answer: B D

Explanation

Please read the explanation at http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/icnd2-operations

Question 2

Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?

A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. BPDU Filter

 

Answer: D

Explanation

We only enable PortFast feature on access ports (ports connected to end stations). But if someone does not know he can accidentally plug that port to another switch and a loop may occur when BPDUs are being transmitted and received on these ports.

With BPDU Guard, when a PortFast receives a BPDU, it will be shut down to prevent a loop -> D is correct.

Question 3

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

 

Answer: C

Question 4

Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)

A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination.it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D. In a property functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3 address information.

 

Answer: A D E

Question 5

Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traffic according to the IEEE 802.1w standard? (Choose two)

A. alternate
B. backup
C. designated
D. disabled
E. root

 

Answer: C E

Explanation

IEEE 802.1w is the standard of Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP). There are 5 port roles in this standard: Root port, Designated port, Alternative port, Backup port and Disabled port. In these 5 port roles, only Root port and Designated port can forward traffic.

Question 6

Select the action that results from executing these commands:

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

 

Answer: B

Explanation

The full syntax of the second command is:

switchport port-security mac-address sticky [MAC]

If we don’t specify the MAC address (like in this question) then the switch will dynamically learn the attached MAC Address and place it into your running-configuration -> B is correct.

Question 7

What is valid reason for a switch to deny port access to new devices when port security is enabled?

A. The denied MAC addresses have already been learned or configured on another secure interface in the same VLAN.
B. The denied MAC address are statically configured on the port.
C. The minimum MAC threshold has been reached.
D. The absolute aging times for the denied MAC addresses have expired.

 

Answer: A

Explanation

A security violation occurs in either of these situations:

* When the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on a secure port and the source MAC address of the ingress traffic is different from any of the identified secure MAC addresses, port security applies the configured violation mode.

* If traffic with a secure MAC address that is configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port in the same VLAN, applies the configured violation mode.

From the second statement we can figure out A is the correct answer. But for your information we will discuss other answers as well.

Answer B is not correct because we can’t configured which MAC address will be denied. We can only configure which MAC is allowed.

We can only configure the maximum MAC threshold, not the minimum threshold -> C is not correct.

The aging times are only configured for allowed MAC addresses, not for denied MAC -> D is correct.

For your information about aging time:

When the aging type is configured with the absolute keyword, all the dynamically learned secure addresses age out when the aging time expires

This is how to configure the secure MAC address aging type on the port:

Router(config-if)# switchport port-security aging type absolute

and configure the aging time (aging time = 120 minutes)

Router(config-if)# switchport port-security aging time 120

When this command is used, all the dynamically learned secure addresses age out when the aging time expires

(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/port_sec.html)

 

CCNA WAN Questions

Here you will find answers to WAN Questions

Question 1

Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded. Based on the partial output of the Router#show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

A. DLCI=100
B. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40
C. in BECN packets 192
D. in FECN packets 147
E. in DF packets 0

 

Answer: C

Question :2

When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, what is the first step when performing a loopback test?

A. Set the encapsulation of the interface to HDLC.
B. Place the CSU/DSU in local-loop mode.
C. Enable local-loop mode on the DCE Frame Relay router.
D. Verify that the encapsulation is set to Frame Relay.

 

Answer: A

Explanation

The first thing when performing a loopback test on a Frame Relay connection is to reconfigure the encapsulation of the interface to HDLC protocol instead of Frame Relay protocol. The main reason is Frame Relay requires a pair of DCE/DTE which cannot be used in a loopback test.

For more information about steps of trouble shooting Frame Relay, please read: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk713/tk237/technologies_tech_note09186a008014f8a7.shtml#topic20

For your information, below is a paragraph quoted from the above link:

“Serial0 is down, line protocol is down”

This output means you have a problem with the cable, channel service unit/data service unit (CSU/DSU), or the serial line. You need to troubleshoot the problem with a loopback test. To do a loopback test, follow the steps below:

1. Set the serial line encapsulation to HDLC and keepalive to 10 seconds. To do so, issue the commands encapsulation hdlc and keepalive 10 under the serial interface.
2. Place the CSU/DSU or modem in local loop mode. If the line protocol comes up when the CSU, DSU or modem is in local loopback mode (indicated by a “line protocol is up (looped)” message), it suggests that the problem is occurring beyond the local CSU/DSU. If the status line does not change states, there is possibly a problem in the router, connecting cable, CSU/DSU or modem. In most cases, the problem is with the CSU/DSU or modem.
3. Ping your own IP address with the CSU/DSU or modem looped. There should not be any misses. An extended ping of 0×0000 is helpful in resolving line problems since a T1 or E1 derives clock from data and requires a transition every 8 bits. B8ZS ensures that. A heavy zero data pattern helps to determine if the transitions are appropriately forced on the trunk. A heavy ones pattern is used to appropriately simulate a high zero load in case there is a pair of data inverters in the path. The alternating pattern (0×5555) represents a “typical” data pattern. If your pings fail or if you get cyclic redundancy check (CRC) errors, a bit error rate tester (BERT) with an appropriate analyzer from the telco is needed.
4. When you are finished testing, make sure you return the encapsulation to Frame Relay.

Question 3

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

 

Answer: D

Explanation

Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network.

Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.

 

Question 4

What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two)

 

A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

 

Answer: B C

 Question 5

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows ”PVC STATUS=INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally,but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally and is no longer actively seeking the address the remote route,
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally and is waiting for interesting to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the switch.

 Answer: D

 Explanation

The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:

+ ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit data
+ INACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not available
+ DELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch
+ STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen so it is ignored in some books.

 

Question 6

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A. Q933-A Annex A
B. IETF
C. ANSI Annex D
D. HDLC

 

Answer: B

 

Explanation

Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link. Below is the output of this command (notice Cisco is the default encapsulation so it is not listed here, just press Enter to use it).


Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively.

HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation type.

CCNA – EIGRP Questions

Here you will find answers to EIGRP Questions

Question 2:

As a Cisco technician, you need to know EIGRP protocol very well. Which of the following is true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two)

A – A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination
B – Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process
C – Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table
D – A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route

Answer: A D

Explanation:

B is not correct because neighbor table only contains a list of directly connected EIGRP routers that have an adjacency with this router, it doesn’t contain successor routes.

C is not correct because successor routes are not flagged as “active”, they are always the best route to reach remote networks and are always used to send packets.

A and D are correct because successor route is the best and primary route to a remote network. It is stored in the routing table and topology table. If this route fails, a backup route (called feasible successor route) in the topology table will be used to route traffic to a destination.

Question 3:

Which two statements are true regarding EIGRP? (Choose two)

A – Passive routes are in the process of being calculated by DUAL
B – EIGRP supports VLSM, route summarization, and routing update authentication
C – EIGRP exchanges full routing table information with neighboring routers with every update
D – If the feasible successor has a higher advertised distance than the successor route, it becomes the primary route
E – A query process is used to discover a replacement for a failed route if a feasible successor is not identified from the current routing information

Answer: B E

Explanation:

Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) is the algorithm for selecting and maintaining the best path to each remote network. DUAL tracks all the routes advertised by neighbors and selects routes based on feasible successors. It inserts lowest cost paths into the routing table (these routes are known as primary routes or successor routes) -> A is not correct.

EIGRP is still a distance-vector protocol, but has certain features that belong to link-state algorithms (like OSPF) than distance-vector algorithms. For example, EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed, not the full routing table like distance-vector algorithms -> C is not correct.

The feasible successor route will become the primary route when its advertised distance is higher than the feasible distance of the successor route. The feasible successor route can be used in the event that the successor route goes down. Notice that the feasible successor route does not get installed in the routing table but is kept in the topology table as a backup route -> D is not correct.

“Support VLSM, route summarization, and routing update authentication” are the features of EIGRP -> B is correct.

When a route fails and has no feasible successor, EIGRP uses a distributed algorithm called Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) to discover a replacement for a failed route. When a new route is found, DUAL adds it to the routing table -> E is correct.

CCNA – OSPF Questions

Question 1:

Which of the following statements below best describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)

A – It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router
B – It is locally significant
C – It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database
D – All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information

Answer: B C

Question 3:

Which items are correct about the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)

A – Support VLSM
B – Increase routing overhead on the network
C – Confine network instability to one area of the network
D – Allow extensive control of routing updates

Answer: A C D

Explanation:

Routing overhead is the amount of information needed to describe the changes in a dynamic network topology. All routers in an OSPF area have identical copies of the topology database and the topology database of one area is hidden from the rest of the areas to reduce routing overhead because fewer routing updates are sent and smaller routing trees are computed and maintained (allow extensive control of routing updates and confine network instability to one area of the network).

Question 4:

Which three features are of OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three)

A – Converge quickly
B – OSPF is a classful routing protocol
C – Identify the best route by use of cost
D – Before exchanging routing information, OSPF routers find out neighbors

Answer: A C D

Question 5:

OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Chose three)

A – Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured
B – Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
C – Area 0 is called the backbone area
D – Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
E – Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
F – Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1

Answer: B C E

Explanation:

I used to think the answers should be C D E and here is my explanation:

OSPF can use an active interface for its router ID, so a loopback interface is not a must -> A is incorrect.

OSPF Area is a 32-bit number so we can use up to 232 – 1 = 4294967296 – 1 (since Area 0 is the first area). Remember that only process ID is a 16-bit number and ranges from 1 to 65535 -> B is incorrect.

F is incorrect too because single area OSPF netwoks must be configured in Area 0, which is called the backbone area.

For answer D, it is a bit hard to guess what they want to say about “hierarchical” but we should understand “Hierarchical OSPF networks” as “OSPF networks”. D is correct bercause we can only have one area (area 0 – the backbone area) for our networks.

But TT commented on 01-11-2010:

Especially to note on choice B, D, and E:

Choice B: we all know that The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID. As choice B specifies ‘area’ (be aware, it’s not saying ‘process id), there is no reason to say that we cannot assign numbers from 0 to 65535 for area # (it is using ‘may be’, not ‘have to be’ or ‘ought to be’). Hence, we do not worry about assigning ’0′.

Choice E: as Area 0 is the backbone, we all understand that any areas in a OSPF network have to be connected to it. And actually this is implicitly saying that multiple areas form a hierarchical OSPF network, as Area 0 being a root and others being its leaves.

Choice D: when it specifies ‘Hierarchical’, at least 2 areas should be required to form such topology (of course that includes Area 0)

Although Choice B is not an absolutely accurate statement since it not only can be assigned up to 65535, it is still a correct answer. And again, it specifies ‘area’, not ‘process id’, so ’0′ can be included. Finally, it would be meaningless to call OSPF a hierarchical network if no more than one area is present.

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